Binomial Distribution 2
More on the binomial distribution
More free lessons at: http://www.khanacademy.org/video?v=FI8xtVaI068
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More on the binomial distribution
More free lessons at: http://www.khanacademy.org/video?v=FI8xtVaI068
it would be simpler if you just used Bernoulli's formula, great video though
In 9:14 doesn't he me n!(5-n)! Rather than n!(5-2)! ?
Hey Guys, help me out here! If you ask me the probability of making one shot, for me I would say p=30%.
While saying this, I am actually providing an estimate that I'll be able to make 3 out of 10 shots for sure (means, P(X=3) given n=10 is 100%)
But then using same numbers n=10 and p=3 I calculate the binomial probability of making 3 shots out of 10 and it is 26.68%!
2:02 that's what she said. (sorry)
This guy does a great job explaining this!
on 9:12 don't you mean [ n! (5-n)! ] ?
what's the difference between this and combinatorics ? or is the difference coming later..
At 9:42, the expression should be P(X=n)= 5!/(n! (5-n)!)
Wasn't the formula that you've used a combination formula? You kept saying permutation (order does matter), but the formula you've used is for combination (order does not matter). Did you use the wrong fomula or were you using the right formula but calling it an incorrect name? Thanks.
I fell pitty for Darth Vader
'and we're choosing two of the flips to be heads'…Sal… what you want to say isn't that because they're heads you choose them?
you mean combination not permuation
Is there something wrong in the histogram? (5, 1/32) should be the midpoint of the bar I think.
9:36 that actually is (5-n)!
Bitch you guessed it, whoooooop! You is right doe.
I'm new to Khan academy and i cannot believe what I've been missing! Here i thought Stats was the most boring class I've ever taken, but the way he explains his outcome just blows my mind.
good teacher… horrible writer. the equations are all over the place.
10:32 doesn't Sal mean combinations, as opposed to permutations, when you choose n out of 5, since you don't care about the order?
It really should be P(X=n) = 5! / ( n! ( 5 – n )! ) * (1/32)
Shouldn't it be P(X==n) = 5! / ( n! ( 5 – n )! ) ?